czgibson
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Greetings,
I think this latest section of the debate shows more than anything else the huge difference in understanding that Muslims and atheists have when it comes to the meaning of words like 'science' and 'logic'. Here are some examples of what I mean by this:
Saying something like "what does mentioning of date and time have to do with science?" shows that the speaker doesn't understand that it's important to know when things happened in order to understand evolutionary history.
Saying something like "Logically, its easy to prove the existance of God and the miracles of the Quran." shows that a fundamentally different understanding of logic is in play to that familiar to Western logicians. In the logic of Western philosophy, there is no possibility of proving god's existence or non-existence. 'God' is simply a term that has been brought into the history of ideas which has no external observable referent.
Similarly, in Western logic there's no question of being openminded - something is either true or it isn't. You can get into modal logic which takes account of possibilities and necessities, but still, being openminded has nothing to do with it. This is the case despite the fact that it's a characteristic that is often valued in humans, a consequence of the nature of logic, which is not able to place values on things.
Of course, no scientist assumes this. Plus, two assumptions have been made here: that a) the Qur'an is perfect, and that b) science must live up to it, when in fact neither of these is necessarily true.
This is a quote that totally baffles me. Let's assume for a moment that it was possible to prove the existence of god and the truth of the Qur'an logically, as is claimed here - surely then it would be possible to prove the existence of Adam and Eve logically? I don't understand how the belief system shown here can be considered at all coherent.
Here's another difference:
I've highlighted the two key words. It is not possible to have knowledge of Adam and Eve, since no other human was around to witness them. Also, just because something is mentioned in a book does not make it necessarily so. To say you know something to be true simply because a book (or somebody) has told you so is no proof at all. Instead, it's the famous fallacy of the argument from authority once more.
This is what makes these discussions so difficult and never-ending: on each side of the debate we're using terms that are familiar to both sides in slightly (or very) different ways. This is why we have so much confusion. Maybe we could get a thread together where we define basic terms such as the ones I've highlighted so we can discuss things on a level playing field - otherwise these discussions will get nowhere.
Peace
I think this latest section of the debate shows more than anything else the huge difference in understanding that Muslims and atheists have when it comes to the meaning of words like 'science' and 'logic'. Here are some examples of what I mean by this:
Saying something like "what does mentioning of date and time have to do with science?" shows that the speaker doesn't understand that it's important to know when things happened in order to understand evolutionary history.
Saying something like "Logically, its easy to prove the existance of God and the miracles of the Quran." shows that a fundamentally different understanding of logic is in play to that familiar to Western logicians. In the logic of Western philosophy, there is no possibility of proving god's existence or non-existence. 'God' is simply a term that has been brought into the history of ideas which has no external observable referent.
Of course it takes some openmindedness and sincere drive for the truth on one's part, as well as God Almighty's Will.
Similarly, in Western logic there's no question of being openminded - something is either true or it isn't. You can get into modal logic which takes account of possibilities and necessities, but still, being openminded has nothing to do with it. This is the case despite the fact that it's a characteristic that is often valued in humans, a consequence of the nature of logic, which is not able to place values on things.
That would be logical if we assumed that everything we know about science today is correct and perfect.
Of course, no scientist assumes this. Plus, two assumptions have been made here: that a) the Qur'an is perfect, and that b) science must live up to it, when in fact neither of these is necessarily true.
No one can logically prove the existance of Adam and Eve (peace be upon them both) however through logically proving the existance of God and the truth of the Quran, everything in the Quran is know to be true.
This is a quote that totally baffles me. Let's assume for a moment that it was possible to prove the existence of god and the truth of the Qur'an logically, as is claimed here - surely then it would be possible to prove the existence of Adam and Eve logically? I don't understand how the belief system shown here can be considered at all coherent.
Here's another difference:
As I have, myself, a strong and sincere strength of faith in God and His Messenger, and the creation and existance of Adam and Eve is mentionned in the Quran, I know it is true. That is my proof.
I've highlighted the two key words. It is not possible to have knowledge of Adam and Eve, since no other human was around to witness them. Also, just because something is mentioned in a book does not make it necessarily so. To say you know something to be true simply because a book (or somebody) has told you so is no proof at all. Instead, it's the famous fallacy of the argument from authority once more.
This is what makes these discussions so difficult and never-ending: on each side of the debate we're using terms that are familiar to both sides in slightly (or very) different ways. This is why we have so much confusion. Maybe we could get a thread together where we define basic terms such as the ones I've highlighted so we can discuss things on a level playing field - otherwise these discussions will get nowhere.
Peace